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Topic starter February 9, 2026 1:52 pm
As an experiment, I chose my own custom SDs for the monte carlo but set them all at 0. I ran a monte carlo, correlated assets, custom sd, with specified expenses only.
Given there is no variance in any of the assets, why isn't the deterministic line identical to the monte carlo line? It looks to be about 30% lower. (And where is the small variance coming from in the monte carlo?)
This topic was modified 2 hours ago 2 times by Jonathan Kandell
