Notifications
Clear all
Issues and Potential Errors
1 Posts
1 Users
0 Reactions
7 Views
Topic starter February 9, 2026 1:52 pm
As an experiment I chose my own SDs for the monte carlo, but set them all at 0. I ran a specified expenses only.
Given there is no variance in any of the assets, why isn't the deterministic line identical to the monte carlo line? (And where is the small variance coming from in the monte carlo?)
